I recently asked a question on two “theology” lists that I belong to about Isaiah’s use of the words “Israel” and “Jacob” in the book of Isaiah.
I understand the difference between Israel and Judah, the divided kingdom, but there was something missing in my reading of Isaiah. Why would the writer of Isaiah purposefully mention Jacob by both his names instead of by one proper name?
Either the Holy Spirit was poking me (in a sense) or my own background in reading was picking up on something.
